What's the first wrong statement in the proof below that $ \triangle BCE \cong \triangle BCA$ $ \; ?$ $ \overline{BC} $ is parallel to $ \overline{DF} $. This diagram is not drawn to scale. $A$ $B$ $C$ $D$ $E$ $F$ Givens $ \overline{AC} \cong \overline{DE}$ $, \ $ $ \angle ACB \cong \angle BDE$ $, \ $ $ \angle ABC \cong \angle DBE$ $, \ $ $ \overline{AB} \cong \overline{EF}$ $, \ $ $ \angle BAC \cong \angle CEF$ $, \ $ and $\ $ $ \angle ACB \cong \angle ECF$ Proof $ \triangle BDE \cong \triangle BCA$ because AAS $ \overline{BE} \cong \overline{AB}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle FCE \cong \triangle BCA$ because SSS $ \angle CFE \cong \angle ABC$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \overline{BC} \cong \overline{CF}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle BCE \cong \triangle BCA$ because SSS
Try going through the proof yourself: write down the givens, and then see if they justify the next step for the reason given. Then do the same thing for the next step, and the next, until you run into something that you can't justify, or you finish the proof. $ \triangle BCA \cong \triangle FCE$ is the first wrong statement.